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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

11.06.2025 01:02

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

There's no rule.

Why don’t Jews regard Jesus as an important teacher or rabbi, if not the Messiah? Putting aside messianic claims, wouldn’t Jesus be one of the most significant Jewish teachers in human history?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

What’s the craziest thing you’ve heard pretending to be asleep?

You'll usually find your answer there.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Why are FtM trans just another type of woman?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.